Holdem

Comment(s) on this article

makes no sense at all. Nov 3, 2008

I wonder whether the person who wrote above article read it afterwards because is non sensical and written for a pro, maybe.

Sean Lind Nov 4, 2008

A lot of these older articles read like stereo instructions. Stay tuned, a re-write is in the works.

Corrie Sherwin Jan 1, 2009

how many chips does each player receive? and what is their worth?

Sean Lind Jan 2, 2009

Corrie, I just answered this question for someone else, you can find the answer near the top of the comments in this article:

http://www.pokerlistings.com/texas-holdem-set-up-and-play

julie daigle Jan 2, 2009

Let's say all the cards are on the table, and there's only two people left. One bets, the other one calls. Does both of them have to show their cards or can one of them muck?

Sean Lind Jan 3, 2009

Julie: Unless the bet was an all-in, players are allowed to muck. The player who made the bet is required to show their hand first. After that the calling player can choose to show, or muck the hand.

If the calling player shows first on their own accord, the betting player can muck their hand if they like.

If it's all in, many rooms have a rule that force both players to show.

In most rooms, any player dealt into the hand has the right to request that both players show, although to do so is considered poor etiquette, and just bad form in general.

peter wall Jan 17, 2009

just want to know which right.....when two player left...so dealer get small blind?....other play get big blind....am i right?

Anand Desai Jan 19, 2009

I said i had a three of a kind not realising that i had a Full house. The player opp me had a flush. But the pot was not given to me saying that i made a wrong call! is there anything like a wrong call in Poker? Thanks, ANAND.

liam Jan 20, 2009

if there are 4 of a kind dealt in the community cards is the pot shared by those still in or does it go to the highest 5th card ?
this happened in a game recently and no one knew the answer

Sean Lind Jan 20, 2009

Peter Wall: When you're heads up (only two players left) the dealer is in fact the small blind.

If this was untrue, the dealer would act last on every street, including preflop, when in Hold'em, the big blind always (almost) acts last preflop.

You still deal the other player first though, just the blinds are "backwards".

Sean Lind Jan 20, 2009

Anand Desai:
There is a rule stating that if you purposely mispeak your hand in an effort at making your opponent muck a better hand, then you will forfeit the pot. Because you said your hand was less than what it was, that was obviously not the case.

As long as you opened your hand, and put it face up on the table for the dealer to see, the pot is absolutely yours. It's the dealers job to award a pot, and pick our the winning hand, not yours.

Unless there is some sort of house rule, you got cheated out of a pot. I've been to a lot of casino's in a lot of countries, and played home games in all of them, and I have never heard of this being a rule.

If something like this (or anything that seems truly unfair) ever happens in a legitimate card room, or casino, don't hesitate to call over the floorman. If you know you're in the right and the floorman still rules against you, you're allowed to ask for a second opinion.

Sean Lind Jan 20, 2009

Liam: You need 5 cards to make a hand in poker, the pot goes to the highest kicker. If multiple people have the highest card, or there's an ace on the board, the pot is then split.

james Jan 22, 2009

when 2 players go all-in at any point in time before 5th street(when there are still cards to be dealt on the board), is it absolutely necessary for them to turn over their hole cards before the turn/river is revealed?

does this ruling change if there were more than 2 players in the pot?

more specifically, can i call someone's all-in n still get to muck my cards if in the end i know i was beat?

thank you

Sean Lind Jan 22, 2009

James, your question is completely dependent on the house rules in play, and if you're playing a tournament or cash game.

Firstly, in every single tournament I have ever seen run requires all players to open hands immediately as the betting is completed with one player, or more, being all in.

In a cash game, unless there is a house rule, you are never required to open your hand before the river. On the river, if you called your opponents final bet, they are required to open first, if you have a losing hand you're allowed to muck it.

Like I said, this will vary from room to room, but what I described is the most common rule-set in play.

rick beyea Jan 22, 2009

We were at a 10 player game I picked up the cards to the right of me after they called all in I was in the call position but looked at my oponents cards. At a house game we do not have a box to keep your cards in front of us so i picked up a wrong hand. I saw it and said I was not going all in anyway . should i cover the all in bet anyway in case I might have called had I not seen I was about to lose

Sean Lind Jan 23, 2009

rick beyea: This is an interesting situation, one I have never come across. I contacted some poker ruling experts for input on this. The most common, and fair, ruling one can make for this event would be to award the pot to the other player, not forcing you to make the call.

Unless a player had done something, verbal or physical, to indicate that they will be betting or calling, a dealer or floor-man can (almost) never force a player to put chips into the pot.

You will get a strict warning about not looking at other peoples hands, and I assume that if it happened again, you would be asked to leave.

person Jan 24, 2009

if you have no more chips can you put more cards in the flop for a last chance?

Sean Lind Jan 27, 2009

person: "if you have no more chips can you put more cards in the flop for a last chance? "

I'm sorry, I have no idea what you're asking. What does "put more cards in the flop" mean? If you can maybe describe what that means for me, I can probable help you out.

Tanya Jan 29, 2009

If someone is in the big blind and they are not there, if there are no raises is their hand still in play for the flop and until a bet is made? In other words, can he win a pot without beinf there or must he be there to actually play the hand?

Sean Lind Jan 29, 2009

Tanya: Firstly, in a cash game this can never happen, since there must be a player in a seat to get cards. But in a tournament, this is very likely.

The rule is different from place to place, but it's always one of two options: If the player is not back to their seat before the last card is dealt, the hand is mucked, the big blind staying in the pot.
or
If the player is not back in time for them to act, their hand is mucked.

The first option is the most common, the second is only used at a more "friendly" environment, where rules are commonly bent.

DOCHOT Jan 30, 2009

IF THERE IS NO HOUSE RULE TO THE CONTRARY, AND TWO PLAYERS ARE ALL IN, IT IS MY UNDERSTANDING THAT THERE IS NO RULE REQUIRING PLAYERS TO EXPOSE THEIR HAND PRIOR TO THE LAST CARD BEING DEALT...IT COMES UP QUITE OFTEN IN OUR LEAGUE, AND IT IS ALWAYS PLAYERS NOT IN THE POT WHO WANT THE HANDS SHOWN...WE HAD A DEALER WHO REFUSED TO DEAL THE FINAL RIVER CARD UNTIL BOTH PLAYERS OPENED THEIR HANDS...i KNOW THIS IS A TOUCHY QUESTION, SO I WOULD LIKE FOR YOU TO CLARIFY FOR LEAGUES THAT DO NOT HAVE A SET RULE FOR SHOWING THEIR HAND....I WAS TOLD BY ONE OF THE EXPERTS THAT THIS RULE IS STRICTLY A WORLD SERIES OF POKER RULE FOR TV PURPOSES, AND IS NOT ACTUALLY PART OF HOLDEM OFFICIAL RULES...

Sean Lind Jan 30, 2009

DOCHOT, firstly, the Caps Lock key is just a hair to the left of the "A" key. Give it a shot.

There is no such thing as "Hold'em Official Rules", there are a bunch of rules that are unanimously agreed on, and there are a bunch of other rules open for suggestion.

In a cash game, it is widely understood that whatever a player does with their hand is up to them, you never have to show your hand if you don't want to. This is how poker was played since inception.

However, in a tournament, I have never seen a tournament that allows all in players to keep their hands face down. Every tournament I have ever witnessed has enforced the rule that hands must be shown when all live players are all in.

This rule may not have started with the WSOP and TV, but that is certainly how it spread. In a cash game, I would stand by your side and say that you can muck your hand if you darn well feel like it, but in a tourney, if you get it all in you need to just turn your hand over.

pitboss Feb 2, 2009

talking in a hand? what can and can you not do in a hand?

Evan Feb 2, 2009

In a game the flop comes out 7,8,9, one player says call I have a 5,6, the other 2 cards are drawn, we bet it turns out he is holding a 5,6.
My question is I thought you weren't allowed to say what you really have. And what is the penalty? If it is one.

Sean Lind Feb 3, 2009

pitboss: This depends wholly on the house rules for angling. If the place has a no angling policy, then you can't say anything about the hand, what you are going to do, what you want them to do.

It's hard to really say what you can' and can not say, as you're not allowed to say anything that will make your opponent act in a way they might not have had you not said it.

In most places, it used to be that you can say and do anything you like if the hand was heads up, that seems to be changing these days.

In private games, the rule of thumb is don't be rude, and don't say things like "You should fold, I have the nuts" giving someone a finite answer is considered poor form. What you can say is "This one is bad for you" or the Scotty Nguyen "You call and it's all over baby"

I hope that helped somewhat?

Sean Lind Feb 3, 2009

pitboss: This depends wholly on the house rules for angling. If the place has a no angling policy, then you can't say anything about the hand, what you are going to do, what you want them to do.

It's hard to really say what you can' and can not say, as you're not allowed to say anything that will make your opponent act in a way they might not have had you not said it.

In most places, it used to be that you can say and do anything you like if the hand was heads up, that seems to be changing these days.

In private games, the rule of thumb is don't be rude, and don't say things like "You should fold, I have the nuts" giving someone a finite answer is considered poor form. What you can say is "This one is bad for you" or the Scotty Nguyen "You call and it's all over baby"

I hope that helped somewhat?

Sean Lind Feb 3, 2009

Hey Evan. The rule of not being allowed to say what you really have was created and enforced exclusively at the WSOP.

Well, let me back track, You're never supposed to talk about your hand when the play is still live. But when it's heads up, most places will give you free reign.

If you lie about what you have, you're not directly talking about your hand, that's why that was allowed. But in the real world of poker, if you're heads up players can and will say most anything.

As for penalties, most places you'd get a warning. In the WSOP it was a time penalty, 5, 10 min or maybe a full orbit.

Here's a rule of thumb for you, if a player says they have a specific hand, more often than not they have exactly what they say they have.

Eric Feb 4, 2009

Hello, can you verify the winner of this hand so a friend of mine will be satisfied. We're playing heads up and I raise from the small blind, I've got AK. My friend calls with A6. The flop comes A88, I bet, my friend goes all in. I call. On the turn comes a 6. And the river is a 10. No straight or flushes are possible. My friend believes that he is the winner because he paired his 6. Can you confirm the winner? Thank You.

Sean Lind Feb 5, 2009

Eric, your friend is mistaken. Your friend did pair his six, but that pair is counterfeit by the two eights on board.

Your BEST hand: A-A-8-8-K
friends BEST hand: A-A-8-8-10

Your friend loses to a higher kicker.

pokerface Feb 10, 2009

i have A-10 he has
A-9 Flop A-K-Q-7-8 who win and is there only one kicker or is it the best 5 cards

Sean Lind Feb 11, 2009

A hand is always 5 cards.

You: A-A-K-Q-10
Him: A-A-K-Q-9

You win with the better third kicker.

Palle Feb 12, 2009

An example: in a tournament with 3 players left all 3 goes all in. The chipleader wins the hand. How do we decide who gets the second place prize and who gets the third place. we cannot find out what we think is most fair: for example one of the players has the best "loser" hand but lowest chip stack. Should he win?
Or is it simply a matter of biggest entry stack to the "all in" that decides who gets which place?
Or is it decided by who sits next to the winner???

Sean Lind Feb 13, 2009

I saw this once in a large local tournament. It was 2 hours of play to get from 9 players down to 4 at the final table. It took 1 hand to go from 4 to finished.

The way you decide final placement is by evaluating the stack sizes at the beginning of the hand. Whomever was 2nd in chips as the cards were dealt gets 2nd, 3rd gets 3rd and so on.

Denis Feb 15, 2009

In example with split bank:
"In a situation like this, a side pot is created. The main pot contains what player C can win ($100 from C + $100 from B + $100 from A = $300) and the side pot contains (B's last $100 + $100 from A = $200). As such, player A has to take $100 back."

If player A folds and player B folds, player C will take all bank or only the main pot?

Also, could someone explain how to divide pots if several people have equal hands (say, if player C and Player A has equal hands).

jw Feb 17, 2009

Hi I have a couple of questions...

What can be done about collusion?

What about a person accidentally pre-exposing their hand before all-in/ river is that considered a dead hand?

What do u do if a person throws their hand and they hit the community cards face up...is it dead or if they are easy to retrieve as their cards are they still live?

This is a nice website! Never knew I could get answers to the questions I have. Thanks alot!

Jeremy C Feb 18, 2009

Im a novice holdem player , Where would I be able to obtain a pictoral easy to read ranking of hands ilistration?

Sean Lind Feb 18, 2009

If player A folds and player B folds, player C will take all bank or only the main pot?

You're asking a pretty tricky question. Firstly player B is all in, so they can't fold, but they can muck their hand.

Player C can only ever win the main pot, since that's the only pot they put money into. The sidepot goes to the winning hand between player A and player B. If one of those players fold, it goes to the remaining hand. If they both fold at the same time, I guess they split it.

Also, could someone explain how to divide pots if several people have equal hands (say, if player C and Player A has equal hands).

If player C and player A have the same hand (and that hand beats player B) Player A wins all of the side pot, and gets half of the main pot, player C just gets half of the main pot.

Sean Lind Feb 18, 2009

Hey jw, unfortunately your questions are all very location dependent, but I'll do my best:

What can be done about collusion?
If the house can prove that two players are colluding they should be removed/banned from the card room. What happens to their chips is up to the floorman I guess.

What about a person accidentally pre-exposing their hand before all-in/ river is that considered a dead hand?
In every room I've played if the exposed hand is ruled to be accidental the hand is live, but the card must remain face up.

What do u do if a person throws their hand and they hit the community cards face up...is it dead or if they are easy to retrieve as their cards are they still live?
There was only one card room I've ever known that ruled a hand to touch the flop dead. They have since reversed that ruling, so this is not a rule anywhere I know of.

peter wall Feb 26, 2009

hey...just want to know...say 4 players on table....no 1 person small blind, no 2 person big blind ....so play on then no 2 out of table....so no 3 get big blind so who get small blind...it is no 1 again or empty no 2?
let me know please thanks

Sean Lind Feb 26, 2009

Jer, you can find what you're looking for here:

http://www.pokerlistings.com/poker-hand-ranking

Sean Lind Feb 26, 2009

Hey Peter. What you're asking is "If a player leaves the table after their big blind hand, who pays the blinds next hand"

In hand one:

Player A: Small Blind
Player B: Big Blind
Player C: Under the gun
Player D: Button

Player B leaves after hand one.

Now, how this works is different if it's a cash game, or a tourney.

Cash Game

Hand two:
Player A: Button
Player C: Big Blind
Player D: Big Blind (yes, two big blinds)

Hand three
Player C: Button with a Small Blind
Player D: Small Blind
Player: Big Blind

In a tournament you simply call the small blind "dead" meaning:

Hand two
Player A: Button
Player: C: Big Blind
Player D: Under the Gun

james Feb 26, 2009

hey regarding Peter's qn, what about hand 3?
does Player C become the button n Player D the small blind?that way Player C 'skipped' a small blind doesn he?how come the rules are different between cash game n tourney?

Sean Lind Feb 27, 2009

Sorry, I should have put hand three in there:

Hand three
Player A: nothing (kind of the button)

Button is dead in the empty seat where Player B was

Player: C: Small Blind
Player D: Big Blind

In a tournament, paying and stealing the blinds is a crucial part, especially in the later stages, to success. For this reason there can never be more than one big blind, and one small blind.

Basically, the tournament rules has Player D paying the big blind @ hand three where in cash would have had it @ hand two.

It's deemed unjust for a player to be forced into the big blind one hand sooner, because of another player busting on their table.

jpriv Mar 1, 2009

I was in a three handed home game and this situation came into question:

I was Player A. After the flop and a bet by myself, Player B began discussing what I could have had and why I bet as much as I did.

Player C was still in the hand but waiting for Player B to finish talking and to decide what to do.

Does Player B have the right to discuss what type of hand I might have made while there is a third player still involved in the hand?

Even though this was a fun, friendly, home game, I would still like to know what would happen in a professional setting.

Thank you in advance......

Sean Lind Mar 3, 2009

It's technically against the rules, and definitely considered poor form to talk about the hand. If you're heads up, feel free to talk all you want, but a player should keep their thoughts to themselves if there are other live players in the hand.

Although, there are a few world-class pro's who think out loud constantly. This is one of those "Selectively enforced" rules. If it bugs you, I'd just politely mention to the player (after the hand) that you'd rather they don't talk about the hand while there are still other live players in the pot.

Rod Mar 10, 2009

Is there a rule that states you have to show both cards at the end? Down to 2 guys, betting done,community cards down, one needs a six to straighten out, he has a six shows it but not the other card, the 2nd guy insists he has to show it. He won with the card he showed, does he have to show the other card?
Thanks

Sean Lind Mar 10, 2009

Rod, In almost every poker room in the world you need to have, and show two cards to win a pot, even if only one card plays.

In most all private games, and even a few cardrooms, you can show just the one card you need to win. This is the way it used to be in Vegas, but I'm pretty sure (other than the private, and some high-stakes games) you need to show both cards now.

peter wall Mar 15, 2009

hi sean...

i want to know when small blind and big blind 100/200...so 3rd player re-rasie so he had to double 200 mean 400?.......always double re-raise from big blinds or what?...need to know that one thanks
regards peter

Roger Smith Mar 15, 2009

When my K9 all-in bet was called, after flop of KQJ, by one other player who had KJ, turn was 6, river was Q. Callinig player showed his hand and thinking i had lost shoved my cards toward the center of the table while declaring that i had a pair of Ks, over looking the river Q had given us both 2r with J kicker. It was declared that I had mucked my hand and consequently lost my half of the pot. Perhaps the question can be summed up, if you go all-in are you even permitted to muck your hand if called by only one other party? Please help resolve this issue and if you know of any official rule that pertains, thanks.

Tiffany Mar 16, 2009

I'm pretty sure I understand the concept of the kicker. However, I was playing some online hold 'em and here's how the game looked after the river:

Community:
Ace, Ace, King, Eight, Four

I had an ace and a seven and I thought I had it. However, the person that "won" the hand had an ace and a queen. Suits didn't matter cuz she didn't have a flush or anything. There's a written record of everything that is done in the game and it stated that she won the pot with 3 As with a K kicker. I thought if anything we would've split the pot since the K was communal and it would've been the kicker for both of us.

Does my losing have anything to do with the second card in each of our hand and my seven being lower than her queen?

Roger Smith Mar 17, 2009

Tiffany, very simply you both had 3 A's and a K. Accurately stated your opponents 5th card, a Q, would be the deciding card, or "kicker," to your 7. Better luck next time.

peter Mar 17, 2009

option a:
player #1: Q, 8
player #2: 7, 5
table: 9, 9, K, 3, 4
who gets the pot?

option b:
player #1: Q, 8
player #2: 7, 5
table: 9, 9, J, 3, 4
who gets the pot?

Roger Smith Mar 17, 2009

Peter, in both cases Pl-1; K-hi w/Q, and Q-hi, it is the best 5 card hand, not sure where there could be any confusion. Poker school for you.

Sean Lind Mar 17, 2009

Thanks to Roger my work here is done. Just remember people, your poker hand is made from your best five cards, every card counts.

Heather Mar 17, 2009

If blinds are 500/1000 and a player goes all in for 1200 do the remaining players just call the 1200 or are they required to complete a full raise and call 2000.

Stuart Mar 18, 2009

Could anybody settle an argument that has broke out between some players in our school recently? During a "friendly" game at home the blinds were 200/400 and the player in the big blind only had 50 chips left. The player on the button bet 400, the small blind folded. After all the cards were shown the player in the big blind won the hand. One of the guys said that he should win every chip that had been betted into the pot but another said he should have only got 150 chips back and the player on the button should have got the rest.

Sean Lind Mar 18, 2009

Heather:
The remaining players only have to call the $1200.

If the player has less than the big blind, a player would have to complete to the big blind to call.

Sean Lind Mar 18, 2009

Stuart:
The answer is: You can only win what you put in.

Small Blind: 200
Big Blind: 50
Button : 400
Small blind folded:

You need to fix the chips now:
The main pot = Big blind's 50 + 50 from small blind, and 50 from the button. That is all the big blind can win.
The other 150 from the small blind is won by the button.

Mark Mar 19, 2009

My father and I had a debate today about whether or not an Ace-2-3-4-5 counts as a straight. I told him that only counts in rummy, but now I'm not so sure. Can someone please help us with this dilemma. Thanks

Sean Lind Mar 20, 2009

Hey Mark, in poker A-2-3-4-5 is absolutely a straight. It's known as "The wheel" or "The bicycle"

Straights range from A2-3-4-5 to 10-J-Q-K-A. In poker you cannot wrap a straight. I.E you can't play Q-K-A-2-3.

Mark Mar 20, 2009

Thank you Sean, I appreciate it.

Tiffany Mar 23, 2009

I still don't understand then. The written account stated the K to be the kicker but we both were entitled to the K since it was communal. If I'm wrong can you please clearly explain the kicker and when a pot should be split?

Sean Lind Mar 24, 2009

Tiffany, in Hold'em you count your best five cards, whether the best five cards are from the board or your hand is irrelevant.

They had:
A-A-A-K-Q

you had

A-A-A-K-8 (since the 8 is higher than your 7, you use the 8 as your second kicker).

It's only ever a chop if you both have the exact same five cards.

keke Mar 24, 2009

In the showdown my opponent hole cards were A J and mine were 6 7 the community was 6 9 9 T T. Does she still win even if she had no match with her two hole cards and community? Please explain?

Sean Lind Mar 25, 2009

Opponent's hand: T-T-9-9-A
Your hand: T-T-9-9-7

Your opponent wins with a higher kicker. You got counterfeit by that last ten, since it gave you both a higher two pair then your sixes and nines.

Arran hastings Mar 25, 2009

ok, i was just playing poker, and a woman had two pairs, 2`s and 9`s i think, thats with all 5 cards on the table. the 2`s were on the table, along with one of the 9`s. but the other guy had an ace, and sumhow won the pot? i cant get my head round that, said he won with an ace kicker or sumthing???

Sean Lind Mar 26, 2009

if the board is something like:

2-2-9-9-6

If no players have a 2, 9, 6 or pocket pair, the winner is the player with the highest single card. Thus anyone with an Ace will win the pot.

mike Mar 26, 2009

I'm a little confused on the clear definition of "short raise". I've always thought a player can go all in at any time as long as it's their turn to act. If say four players in the hand, player one bets 200 and player 2 (with only 300 left calls and pushes all in, can either of the other two players go all in for more chips than the person all in even if that amount is less than what would amount to double the original bet?
I've recently heard several people claim "no, no, no thats a short raise"...and I honestly cant remember all the scenarios but it's become quite frequent.
can you explain when a short raise is truly a short raise and not acceptable. And is it different for cash and tourney?

Sean Lind Mar 27, 2009

Hey Mike, basically a player must make a complete raise to re-open betting.

Player 1 bets $200
Player 2 raises all-in for $300
Player 3 ?

Player three has the option to do anything they want, they can fold, call, re-raise, move all in. If player three just calls, player one will only have the option to call or fold. Basically, if player 1 was allowed to raise here, he would really just be raising himself, since the only full bet made was his own.

Now, some poker rooms do function on the 50% rule (although this is typically only used for limit, I have seen it in No-Limit games). This means that if the short raise was equal to, or more than half of a complete bet, betting is re-opened. This is becoming rare now, and was mostly only used as a rule because the people making the rules didn't know any better.

In a tournament, the house sets the rules, betting can be re-opened by a 50% bet or a full raise. Just be sure to ask the dealer before you start playing. If you have to guess, it's better to assume that a full raise is needed, since that is most common by far.

adam kackman Mar 28, 2009

is there a limit of how many people there are?

Mark Nash Mar 29, 2009

does 6,7,8,9 mean a hand?

mike Mar 30, 2009

ok thanks...understand the complete raise and short raise better now...
just to be certain -
player 1 bets 200
player 2 raises to 500
player 3 is all in for 300
then player 1 can do anything he/she likes; fold, call, or move all in since player 2 made a complete raise...right?

peter wall Mar 30, 2009

hey....if 100/200 blind so 3rd player want re-rasie so how many chips he must above?...it will be 300 or had to 400...through follow double of 200?...understand what i mean?

Sean Lind Mar 31, 2009

Adam: typically you want no more than 10 players on a single table.

Mark Nash: in Hold'em, 6,7,8,9 is nothing (it's known as a busted straight, and is worthless)

Mike: You are correct

Peter Wall: A minimum raise preflop is always double the big blind. So in a 100/200 blind game, under the gun (first player to act) must fuld, call 200 or raise to 400

peter wall Apr 2, 2009

Ok thanks....so 100/200 blinds...other player raise 400...it had to be double from big blinds but what about 2nd player re-raise 600 or still had to double 800?...please advise
thanks for your help!!

Sean Lind Apr 2, 2009

A min raise is always equal to a call + additional bet equal to the amount of the previous raise (or bet).

Thus, 100/200 player raises to 400, the min raise is to 600 (400 + (400-200))

Just figure out how much they raised (200) and add that to their total amount for your min raise.

VincentnLaura Apr 5, 2009

Question? If straight is flop on the table ..exp 7,8,9,10,J and ur opponent has a J and u have a K high who will win the pot?

Sean Lind Apr 7, 2009

You make the best five card hand you can, if the best hand you can make is the 5 board cards, you use that. So in your scenario you split the pot. The only way someone will be a winner is if they hold a Q, or better yet QK.

John Corvi Apr 7, 2009

Sean;
Is the burn card part of the official rules to Texas Hold em or something less, like tradition, casio rules, rule for TV ?
There is a player at a home game who swears burning a card is not an Official rule ??
Personally 99% of people I play with burn ?

Sean Lind Apr 8, 2009

Hey John, your friend is wrong. Burn cards are part of the rules in every legitimate game in the world. The only people who don't employ a burn card are the people who don't know you're supposed to.

In short: Yes, it is a rule.

richard Apr 10, 2009

a player was awarded the pot with a pair of nines the dealer started to deal the cards when two players said that Neal had pair of jacks the nine player already had the pot but they then gave it to the jacks player was this right?

Sean Lind Apr 11, 2009

if the player actually had the pair of Jacks, then this is right. If the cardroom has camera's, typically they will go to the video and see what happened, that way they can decide who wins, and the size of the pot.

If there are no cameras it needs to be done by the dealer reconstructing the hand as best he can to figure out the pot size. Also, the dealer has to remember that the player had a pair of jacks, if the dealer doesn't remember that, the player with the pair of nines really has to be on board and be a good guy.

It's a sticky situation, but if everyone can agree that the pot should have gone to the player with the jacks, then that's where the pot should go.

David Apr 11, 2009

Please can someone assist.
It is to do with 'All in' play If a player goes 'all in' and 3 other players match his bet and then start a side bet. But another player goes 'all in' aswell on the side bet and the others players fold on that side bet, do the playing who foldered on the 2nd 'all in' fourfeit playing the first 'all in' game at the same time and that leaves the second 'all in' person playing the first 'all in' person playing for the first pot. Or even though some players foldered in the side bet can they still play for the first pot as that bet was matched.
Hope this makes sense to someone!!!!

Sean Lind Apr 11, 2009

As soon as you fold your hand, you are no longer eligible for any pot.

laz Apr 14, 2009

HI IM LAZ

Chas Apr 14, 2009

If the blinds are say... $5,000 and $10,000 and a player goes all in for $500...are the rest of the players required to call this bet at the big blind amount of $10,000 or can they call at the amount of the raise of $500?

I see no advantage to any player if they are allowed to just call the amount of the bet at $500.

Can you explain why one might have an advantage in this situation. Thanks.

Chas Apr 14, 2009

I'm sorry, in the above posting... this question pertains to after the flop and the initial betting of the blinds.

Jackie Apr 14, 2009

Hey Sean, How do you handle this, what is rule?
Player A bet Player B called, player C was gonna call but dealer burned and turned.
We play that the burn and turn is picked up and cards shuffled, player C now can call.
Or do you see if player C is gonna call before you pick up cards?

Glen Apr 16, 2009

Hi there,
can you please tell me what the rule is with deciding who wins a tourny when its heads up and the club hosting the tourny wants to close the bar and go home? should there be a chip count and chip leader wins or no question asked and a split for the remaining pool?
thanks

Wazza Apr 17, 2009

G'day there, i just came across your site and love it. I have a question, last night in a game of texas hold'm' 2 players had as follows: Player A (Q)clubs (9)hearts,,,,,,,& Player B (7) clubs (J) hearts. The 5 cards on the table were (K)clubs (10)clubs (6)clubs (3)clubs and (A)dimonds.. Both had a flush draw was it a split pot or did player A win because of the (Q)kicker as the second highest card out of the best 5 cards??? Thanks Wazza

lukas Apr 20, 2009

nkl

ROBERT Apr 21, 2009

IF 1 GUY HAS 4Q & AOTHER GUY HAS 23 & AA234 IS ON THE TABLE WHO WINS

Dave Apr 22, 2009

The guy with 4Q would win Robert - his best 5 cards would be AA44Q.

The other guys best hand would be AA334.

The first guy has a higher 2 pair. The pair of 2's become void.

Sean Lind Apr 25, 2009

Hey Chas, sorry for the delay in answering ( I was on vacation).

For your question, the minimum call preflop, and minimum bet on the flop is always the amount of the big blind ($10,000).

If the player in the big blind only has $500, they can only win a pot equal to $500 from every player to enter the hand preflop. The rest of the money goes into a side pot for the remaining players.

Sean Lind Apr 25, 2009

Hey Jackie, Just like Chas above, sorry for the delay in answering.

You're almost correct, if the dealer burns and turns before all players have acted the dealer leaves the burn (as that was always meant to be a burned card), and reshuffles the turn back into the deck.

Player C can now act, the dealer then turns the top card after reshuffling and cutting the deck. Since they have already burned once, they do not burn again.

Sean Lind Apr 25, 2009

Hey Glen, in this situation typically the place will want to state their rule for this ahead of time. Either way, the most fair way to do this is known as a "chip chop".

You count your chips, and get the % of your chips to the total (you can just ballpark it really). If you have 40% of the chips, you get 40% of the prize pool.

(The prize pool for this is made from 2nd and 1st place prizes being combined into one).

If you're playing for a winner takes all tangible prize, you might have no other option than to give the prize to the player with the most chips, but they should at least tell you that "you have 10 hands left".

Sean Lind Apr 25, 2009

Hey Wazza, glad you like the site. First thing you should learn is how to write out a hand to make it easy to read. Your question should look like this:

Player A: Qc 9h
Player B: 7c Jh

Board: Kc 10c 6c 3c Ad

In this situation, Player A wins because they have the highest flush (King Queen) as opposed to player B who's flush is King Ten.

Sean Lind Apr 25, 2009

Hey Robert, Dave is 100% correct... so what he said.

Thanks Dave.

Shrek Apr 25, 2009

Pre flop. If no one else raises can big blind raise?

Steve Rogalinski Apr 26, 2009

To makes no sense, maybe you should read it again!

alben b manuel Apr 27, 2009

comments please....
When the flop came out (10 6 4 - suits immaterial)...."regular player" (holding 5 6) bet 100. Then suddenly "ignorant player" (who alreedy folded before the flop) said that the cards the dealer flopped was his 10 4. Dealer said "sir that's impossible". "Ignorant player" kept insisting it was his 10 4 that was flopped, exactly the same suit. After 2 more exchanges, dealer calls floor, floor checked mucked cards then said for all to hear, "there's a 10". "Regular player" then said, why did you announce the card when there is an active play? First, floor denied, but later admitted. Then "greedy player", called the 100. "regular player is now calling for a mis deal and split pot since floor announced a mucked card. While argument is ongoing, dealer opens the turn, (7). "regular player", now irritated, opens his cards and asked greedy player that they just split the pot (pot is only 400+, regular player has 4,000 in his stack). "Greedy player" doesn't want, saying he has top pair, but "regular player" now has open ended straight draw and mid pair. "regular player" insisted on a mis-deal and split pot since floor announced a mucked card. Floor 1 now calls Floor 2, Floor 1 tells the story that "regular player" showed his card and calling on a mis deal, Floor 1 did not mention "regular player's" point that floor 1 announced a mucked card. Floor 2 decided that "regular Player's" hand is considered mucked and pot should go to "greedy player".
Comments please....

Sean Lind Apr 28, 2009

Hey Shrek.

Absolutely, every player gets the chance to make a choice in every betting round. The betting round ends once all players have had the chance to act, and all players have bet the same amount of money (for that betting round)

Sean Lind Apr 28, 2009

Alben, TLDN.. just kidding.

Sounds like quite the S**t show.

Firstly, the dealer shouldn't have said it's impossible, as if I've seen a player holding suited Aces in a casino, anything is possible.

Secondly, the pit should have never announced that there was a 10 mucked.

But once the pit does announce that (it's not that big of a deal since the ignorant player already said it), it should be treated as nothing more than an exposed card, and play continues.

Regular player should have known better than to open his hand in a casino where doing so would rule your hand dead.

Although it sucks for the regular player, I think the ruling of killing his hand is actually just. So far nothing has happened to warrant a misdeal and pot chopping.

A misdeal is almost never declared after betting has taken place, and certainly would never be considered as the action to take because of an exposed card.

I have to sympathize with greedy player here, as it's part of the game to take advantage of any mistake your opponent makes, that's exactly what he did.

shaun Apr 28, 2009

when someone joins a game can they miss the big blind and start with the small blind

Sean Lind Apr 29, 2009

Shaun, no they can not.

I player must sit and post, or wait until the big blind to play.

They can also choose to wait until the big blind passes them, and post behind the button.

BUT

A player can sit in the seat between what should be the small blind and the button, and "buy the button".

This means they pay both the big and small blind (the small is dead in the pot) and there is only the one blind for the hand. The next hand, they get the button and everything is back to normal.

t May 6, 2009

peter wall !!!! yes that is correct

jim May 9, 2009

At a table of six people the small blind busts out. Where does the large blind, small blind and botton go next? Online, I believe the blinds move so that the previous large blind is now the botton and the blinds are to his/her left. In a game there was a lot of discussion on this, some wanted to leave the deal where it was, others wanted the eliminated player to deal. Later with five plays when this happened again, the small blind was just eliminated for one hand. What is correct or is there a standard rule?

Sean Lind May 12, 2009

This depends on if you're in a tourney or in a cash game. In a tourney the most important thing is for no players to have to pay blinds sooner than they would have if the player situation never changed. So if the small blind busts out, the button is "dead" moving to the seat where the small blind used to be. This means the button is technically on the same player twice, but the blinds never jumped a spot.

In a cash game, you'd move the button past the empty seat and have the button post a small blind, as well as the regular blinds, making a small, small big scenario.

Matt May 14, 2009

As far as I can tell from this article, pre-flop betting starts with the person to the left of the big blind, whereas all other rounds start with the first player remaining to the left of the button.

However, the friends I play with insist that the first person to act in each post-flop betting round should be the last person that raised in the previous betting round.

Which of these is correct?

Sean Lind May 14, 2009

Matt, post-flop betting ALWAYS starts with the first person to the left of the dealer in Texas Hold'em.

In a game like Stud, the first person to act is decided by the player showing the best hand. This is closer to what your friends are talking about... but either way they're mistaken.

Carol May 18, 2009

Hi. Two questions -
1) If there are 2 players in a hand, & one player is all-in before the flop, is the winning hand determined from the flop alone - or do the turn and river still come down, even though no further betting can take place after the flop?
2) If there are several players, & only one goes all-in after the flop, do the others continue betting on a side pot with the turn & river coming down as usual? If that happens, does the player that went all- n after the flop get to use the cards from the turn and river as well? Thanks!

Sean Lind May 19, 2009

Hey Carol,

1) If a player is all-in, you must run the whole board (5 cards + 3 burn cards). Even though there's not more betting, there has to be 5 cards on the board for a showdown.

2) If one player is all in, they can win the pot equal to the amount of money they put in, plus that same amount of money from every player that calls. Any betting on top of that is in the side pot. The original all in uses all 5 cards to try and win the main pot.

Carlos Cavazos May 20, 2009

Hi, What happens in this situation?
There are two players. And at the end of the river card Player 1 calls a Ace high straight and just as Player 1 turns his cards over Player 2 muck his card face down and says he had a lower straight. Then all of a sudden someone says he doesn't have an Ace high straight, but only a pair of jacks. Does Player 1 wins with jacks even though Player 2 mucks his cards face down relying on what Player 1 says? Or can Player 2 get his cards (considering we all can see Players 2 Cards face down on the table) and actually win with a lower straight considering Player 2 does in fact have a low straight. Or a muck is a muck and does loses?

Sean Lind May 20, 2009

This situation is always sticky. Firstly, never throw your cards away until you've seen the winning hand. But that doesn't always happen.

It is against the rules to purposely miscall your hand, for that reason if player 2's hand is CLEARLY identifiable (meaning the cards are not in the muck, just face down on the table), the pot can be awarded to player 2.

Even though mucking your hand does kill it, mucking it as a result of another player breaking the rules plays in your favor. As long as player 2 showed his hand before he mucked it, or the whole table can clearly see which cards are his, he should get the pot.

Carlos Cavazos May 22, 2009

Ok,
How does the ruling goes as far as raising is concern? What I mean, on preflop, if first player to action raises does it have to be double the blind? And what about the next player, if he/she want to reraises is it double the blinds or double the first raise? And so on.....

Now, is there a difference in preflop raises, reraises and so on vs. after the flop, turn, and river. Or the raising format is the same for all situations?

Sean Lind May 22, 2009

The rules on this are hard and firm:

In a No-Limit game, the first preflop raise must be equal to (or more than) double the big blind.

If another player wants to re-raise, their minimum raise is by adding the total bet plus the amount of the previous raiser.

Example:

Small blind- $1
Big Blind - $2

The first player makes a min raise to $4

The second player's min raise is the amount of the bet, plus the amount of the previous players raise ($4 + $2 = $6).

Another example:

SB-$1
BB-$2

First raiser makes it $20

A minimum re-raise is $38. (THe first raiser raised $18, $20 + $18 = $38)

On the flop, turn and river, the minimum bet is the big blind, and all the same raising rules apply.

Carlos May 28, 2009

Here is another situation. If a player continues to bet or fold out of turn after he/she has been told not to be doing that what are some realistic penalties? For both tournament and cash games

Thanks in advance

Sean Lind May 28, 2009

This is tricky, since it's pretty much impossible to enforce a penalty on a player in a cash game.

If the dealer feels the player is playing out of turn intentionally, as a form of angle, the dealer can rule that player's hand dead, or the house can ask the player to leave the game.

Other than that, there's nothing else that really can be done.

In a tournament, the tournament manager is God, they can do whatever they like. Ruling the hand dead is still an option, or forcing a time-out, where that player is not allowed to be seated at the table for x amount of time.

Carlos May 28, 2009

Ok, so if a player is told to leave the seat for x amount of time does the player dealt any cards? Or does the dealer passes the player seat and does NOT deal the empty seat?

Sean Lind May 28, 2009

The dealer should deal a hand for the non-seated player, and immediately muck the hand before any action starts.

nikki Jun 1, 2009

when do the kickers come in? I don't get when you go to the kicker and when you split a pot.

Sean Lind Jun 2, 2009

Hey Nikki,

The key is to remember that you have to make the best 5-card hand possible.

If two players have the same type of hand (such as two pair), you need to compair each player's best hand:

Player 1: AAKKQ
Player 2: AAJJ9

Since both players have AA as their big pair, we move to the second pair to determine a winner. KK > JJ, player 1 wins.

Player 1: AAKKQ
Player 2: AAKK9

In this scenario, the first and second pairs are the same. As a result, we must now move to the kicker. Since Q > 9, player one wins.

Player 1: AAKKQ
Player 2: AAKKQ

And finally, if all cards are the same, you split the pot.

Carlos Jun 3, 2009

Hi,
There are three players in a tournament style game. Lets say after the flop
Player 1: bets $50
Player 2: calls $50
Player 3: raise $100

Player 1: reraise to $200
Player 2: is thinking about it
Player 3: Goes all-in not realizing that Player 2 is thinking about it.

What happens here for acting out of turn?

Sean Lind Jun 3, 2009

There is no "standard" way for dealing with this. Everyone seems to have their own take. The most common way to deal with acting out of turn, and in my opinion the most fair, is as follows:

Player 3's action stands (and can't be changed) as long as Player 2 folds, or calls the amount of the previous raise.

If player 2 raises, then player 3 is allowed to make his choice again, meaning he can take back his bet and fold, if he so chooses.

If the action is deemed "done purposely for with the intent of angling", the hand may be declared dead. But since it's next to impossible to prove a persons intent, this is almost never a possible outcome.

Lou Jun 5, 2009

In No Limit holdem if three players are in the hand but were not on the button or blinds, player 1 moves all in with 50, player 2 raises 400, player 3 calls. after the river player 2 bets, player 3 folds. player 1 wins the hand. how are the 50 and 100 blinds divided? Does player 1 only win 150?

Sean Lind Jun 5, 2009

Lou, you are almost correct.

Player 1 can only win 50 from every stack in the hand.
50 from small blind
50 from big blind
50 from player 2
50 from player 3

and finally, he wins back his own 50

Player 1 wins a total of 250

Player 2 wins 750
(50 left over from the big blind, 350 from his raise that player 3 called, and his own 350 back)

Nicole Jun 10, 2009

Do you know how they determine who sits where at the final table in a tournament?

Sean Lind Jun 11, 2009

Hey Nicole,

When a tourney works down to a final table, the play stops and seats are assigned to players.

The players are seated at random, by either having each player pick a card with a seat number on it, or the tournament director drawing seats for the players.

Either way, seats are drawn (or dealt) at random.

Rob Jun 16, 2009

How can you easily explain the "split pot" rule? I play in small neighborhood cash games that always seem to have one person that just doesn't get it. I've tried explaining it many times but I can see that some players don't believe me or understand the rule. Can you help?

Sean Lind Jun 16, 2009

hey Rob,

The best way you can do it is to say:

"In poker, you can only win what you're able to put back in the middle, for example if I only have $1 and you have $100, it's not fair that I can win all of your money by moving all in, risking almost nothing"

Taking things to the extreme always helps people understand. Then, just build the sidepot one step at a time, making sure you explain it. Put the small stack into the pot, and take out that amount from every other stack into the main pot. Then explain that everyone can win this pot, continue doing this for all remaining side-pots.

That should do it up for you.

carlos Jun 18, 2009

Iam new at poker and have a question:
If two players have the same pair in the flop and one has a higher kiker than the other but the kiker is smaller thank the cards on the table do we do by the table cards or the kiker.... and is it the same for two same pairs.... thanks for answering......

robert Jun 20, 2009

if 1 player has j 4 and the other has j 3 and the down cards are A 3 A 6 j who wins the game

steve Jun 23, 2009

if there are 5 spades out and someone has a spade lower than the ace do they win

Sean Lind Jun 23, 2009

Carlos,

you always make the best 5 card hand possible. If your kicker is higher than any cards on the board, they play. If the board cards are higher, you chop the pot.

Sean Lind Jun 23, 2009

Robert, you have to make the best 5 card hand possible, so the players split the pot. both players have AAJJ6

Sean Lind Jun 23, 2009

Steve,

If there are 5 spades out, the player with the highest spade in their hand (as long as it's higher than any card on the board), wins the pot.

unlukcy Jun 23, 2009

Sean,
I was sitn' at a casino everyone folded (Just me n him)It's showdown I was very aggressive on the hand brought the Pot up ovr a Grand He wasnt sure what to do, He shows me his 10 9 (he didnt layem' down)and tells me he has a Straight !!!!!!!! out loud !!!!!
I had trips, MY MOUTH DROPPED(not Literally) and he CALLS me.after I reacted Is that Legal?

unlucky Jun 23, 2009

Should of the dealer said some thing or, are there different rules for differ casinos?

Sean Lind Jun 24, 2009

unlucky,

When it's down to heads up, showing your cards is totally fine. It's an angle, but that's simply part of the game.

In some casino's this is against the rules, and when you do it your hand is dead (99% of the time the player just gets a warning). If your casino has this rule, then the dealer should have said something.

But, even if your casino has this rule, showing your cards like that is simply a part of No-Limit Hold'em. Hopefully you have the guy beat next time.

ray Jul 3, 2009

when you are betting and the big blind say is .25 the next player wants to raise does the raise have to be .50 of more and if any one wants to raise do they need to raise by double the blind.if you raise can one bet less then double the big blind in a game.

Sean Lind Jul 3, 2009

Hey Ray, here's how raising works:

First raise preflop must be a minimum of double the big blind. In NL, you can raise any amount higher than that.

After the flop, the minimum bet is the big blind, and a minimum first raise would be double that.

Once someone has made a real bet, your minimum raise is figured out like this:

Total bet + the amount the previous person raised = min raise.

So in your game with a ¢25 big blind, a player raises to $2.

your minimum raise is:

$2 + ($2 - ¢25) = $3.75