Comment(s) on this article

John Oct 4, 2008

ok, i have A,K
My opp has A,K
the others are

A,A,K,2,6

Who wins?

Sean Lind Oct 7, 2008

Haha, we really need a specific section for these questions.

John: You and your opponent both have the same hand. Unless one of you hit a flush, you get to chop up the pot (split it equally between the two of you) If there is an odd chip, it goes to the player in the earliest position.

Alicia Dec 30, 2008

What about this scenario:
I have A, 8
My opp has A,5

Table shows A A K 2 6

We both have trip Aces, but does the high card 8 take it, or is the pot split?

Sean Lind Dec 31, 2008

Alicia, all poker hands are always compiled using the best possible five card combination.

You have:
A-A-A-K-8

While your opponent has:
A-A-A-K-6

Since the 8 beats the 6, you are the sole winner of the hand. If the board was A-A-2-K-J, then the best five card hand for both of you would be A-A-A-K-J, meaning the pot would be split.

Tom Jan 3, 2009

Ok i have Q,7
my opp has Q,J

The flop,turn,and river have

9,3,3,8,A

Who wins?

Sean Lind Jan 3, 2009

Tom, you posted a question on another article. The cards were slightly different, but the answer to the question is the same, so I'll just cut and paste:

Tom: You started by saying that you need to make the best five card hand, but in your assessment you only used three cards.

Board: A-3-3-4-7

Player 1: QJ

Player 2: Q9

Player one's hand: A-3-3-Q-J
Player two's hand: A-3-3-Q-9

Basically, you follow down the hand until there's a difference, in this scenario all cards are the same until the fifth card, the third kicker. Jack is higher than a nine, so player one wins the entire pot.

Only if ALL 5 CARDS are the same will the pot be chopped.

lisa Jan 11, 2009

Hi wat hand wins on the table A club 9 spade queen clubs 3 clubs and 4 clubs

player 1 q spades and 9 clubs
player 2 q hearts and 8 clubs

so both have a flush does the 9 beat the 8 with the ace on the table or is it a split pot cheers

Sean Lind Jan 13, 2009

Hey Lisa, the hand with the highest club wins (since you have to make a hand out of the best 5 cards.) You use all five cards to evaluate the value of the hand.

The only way it would be a split pot on a flush, is if the board had five clubs, and neither player had a club HIGHER than any of the clubs on the board.

john dawson Jan 13, 2009

PLAYERS STACK LESS THAN BIG BLIND AGIANST 2 OTHER PLAYERS - I understand the pot sharing logic, but what is the commitment of the remaining players. Are they committed to create an additional pot with the balance of the big blind or can they opt to only contribute the same amount to the "side pot" as the small stacked player & bet no further. I argue that as they have sufficient chips they must honour the big blind rule and are committed to create a second pot with the balance of the big blinds even if they then check round. THANKS, JOHN

Sean Lind Jan 14, 2009

john dawson, you are correct. Regardless of how many chips the big blind has, any player wanting to call preflop, must put in the amount of the complete big blind.

The only exception is if the whole table folds to the small blind, obviously the small blind only has to match the bet, since any side pot money they would win anyways.

LANNA SOUTH Jan 18, 2009

OK ON THE BOARD IS A,Q,5,5,3 P1hasQ,3 P2hasQ,9 whowins? Both players have Q,Q,5,5 but player one also has a pair of 3 so does it count who has the high card or who has the higher hand after the Q's and 5's are out?

Sean Lind Jan 20, 2009

LANNA SOUTH:

The Board is: A,Q,5,5,3
P1 has Q,3
P2 has Q,9

Both players have Q-Q-5-5-A, making it a split pot. People will jokingly say that Player 1 has three pair, unfortunately for them, three pair is only as good as the best two pair of the three.

Since the ace is the best kicker on the two pair, it's a split pot.

Redd Feb 2, 2009

PLAYER CALLS THE WRONG HAND.

This just happened a few days ago,

What if, there are 2 players left in a hand, it goes to the river. One player says he has a pair, the other player says he has a straight. beats the other guys pair and starts grabbing the chips.

but another player (who is not in the hand) tells the guy with the pair, that he actually has a flush, which he didn't notice. then he takes the chips...

we all thought that was wrong to do... once you call a hand and someone calls a better hand, you lose.

Sean Lind Feb 3, 2009

Hey Redd, when a player turns their hand over (face up) on the table, it's a live hand, meaning no matter what they say they have, cards talk. If he thinks he only has a pair, but has a flush, he has a flush.

As for a player not in the hand bringing it up, that's kind of an issue. Technically the dealer should call the hands, and should correct the player and ship the pot to the correct player.

If you're at a game without a professional dealer, then it's slightly poor form to speak up, but it's not a huge etiquette infraction, since the player DID have the winning hand, the pot should be theirs.

Don't speak up yourself, but don't get mad when someone else does.Either way, once someone does speak up, the pot is always awarded to the player with the best hand, in this case the flush.

tony Feb 17, 2009

im in a no limit hold em game in the small blind. 5-10 blinds. lets say player A raises the big blind to 40. player B goes all in behind him for 50. rest of players fold to me. do i still have option to reraise for more over the 50 (which of course wasnt a legal sized raise) or am i stuck being able to only call the 50? i assume i still have the option to raise what i want to by being in the small blind and havent had the chance to act on my hand yet. is this legal to raise?

Big papa pott Feb 17, 2009

Table has a straight

9,10,J,Q,K

Player 1; J,8
Player 2; Q,7

Who wins? As straight on table already and no other cards can be used due to 5 cards?

Sean Lind Feb 18, 2009

Tony, you're correct. You have the option to raise, call or fold.

If you just call, the big blind only has option to call or fold. If you do choose to raise, the big blind has option to do whatever again.

Sean Lind Feb 18, 2009

Big Papa Pott:

It's a split pot, both players have the same hand.

-sean

big papa pott Feb 18, 2009

Thanks for that sean, one last thing, if player 1 had A,8 would he then win due to having a higher straight, or because of the straight already out on table does it mean nowt?
Ta

Sean Lind Feb 19, 2009

You're correct with the former. Any player holding an ace now has the nut straight, and would beat any player not holding an ace.

Remember, in Hold'em it's always the BEST five card hand you can make, using any combination of board cards and your hand.

Lorie Mar 3, 2009

I actually have 2 questions. In the poker league I play in, if you bet or call out of turn you must fold your hand and chips are lost. Is this a poker rule? If so, 1 player calls out of turn and 2 more follow him. Do they all have to muck? Thanks

Sean Lind Mar 4, 2009

Wow, that first rule is ridiculous Lorie. I have never heard of anything that strict for playing out of turn. Typically the rules for out of turn play are as follows:

The player playing out of turn is committed to betting a minimum of the amount of chips bet out of turn, for example if a player raises out of turn, and the player before him just calls, the out of turn player MUST make the same raise.

If the player before the out of turn player raises, then the out of turn player can call or re-raise (most places won't let a player fold here, but some will).

I've even played in a place where playing out of turn meant you lost option, and could only check/call when action was on you. Even that is sort of dumb, but a forced muck is fundamentally wrong.

As for the second question, player 1 raises out of turn, and two players call, those bets are locked into play, meaning if the player to act folds or calls no players will get an option, play will resume to the left of the second call.

In your league the two players who called should not be deemed at fault, since they were following the player to their right. There is no way these two players should be penalized because another player messed up.

Jason Mar 4, 2009

We played a game last night and the flop was dealt with a raise on the draw before the last 2 people acted person acted (one of which was the dealer) and the betting already begun for the flop.
I said the fair way was to have the 2 people who did not bet muck the cards because the person who misdealt anyway was the dealer and just let the other two play the pot. The person skipped after the dealer said the hand altogethor should be mucked. We ended up just playing the hands as is but I told them I really believe that they should have mucked. I saw other rules on this and I saw if the turn is dealt prematurely then it is reshuffled into the deck a new burn is dealt, does this go the same for the flop?

daniel carter Mar 4, 2009

what is considered a fold ?

Sean Lind Mar 4, 2009

Jason, Absolutely. If the flop is flopped before a player has had a chance to act, the flop cards are returned to the deck, the deck shuffled; Preflop play resumes. Once preflop play has concluded the dealer brings down the "new flop"

Sean Lind Mar 4, 2009

Daniel, I'm not exactly sure what you mean? A fold is when a player says "fold" or throws their hand away.

If the player is still holding on to their cards, then they have not technically folded, unless they say the words "I fold" or "I pass".

kira Mar 21, 2009

if one player raises and the other matches and calls can the first player raise again or do they have to show there hand

Sean Lind Mar 24, 2009

Kira:

A betting round ends when two conditions are met:
1) All players have had the chance to act at least once
2) all players have the same amount of money wagered.

Once player 1 bets and player two raises, player 1 is now able to fold, call or raise.

If player one just calls, the betting round is over.

If player one had bet and player two just called, that would also end the betting round.

lester Mar 30, 2009

In the table:
Ah Jh 6h 2h 9h

I don't know if:
There's no winner because everybody have the same flush (A higher)

or

If someone has, for example, 3h is the winner

Sean Lind Mar 31, 2009

Lester, whomever had the highest heart in their hand will win the pot, unless their heart isn't high enough to beat one of the hearts on the board.

Each player plays their best five card hand, each card of those five count. In your example, if a player holds the 3h (or any heart) they will win (assuming no one else has a higher heart).

If no one has a heart, everyone splits the pot.

xXx-J-Lee-xXx Mar 31, 2009

Ok, i play a lot of no limit hold em on full tilt poker and i have a question about 2 hands
board = 5 j Q K A keep in mind i did review the hands to make sure they didn't beat me with a flush or any other hand it was stated in the play log winner was strait or 3 of a kind i thought that 3 of a kind beats a strait anytime......

p1 = 10,3
p2 = 5,5
winner was p2
this hand however
example* board = 5 j Q K A

p1 = 10,3
p2 = Q,Q

in this senerio on full tilt p1 won with strait
this is not an exact replica of hand but i have had numerous hands like these and sometimes 3 of a kind wins and sometimes the strait wins can someone explain this to me!!!!! < for as far as i can see if one of the 3 pair was used in the strait the strait would win, where as the player had 3 of a kind and the other player had a strait that didn't share one of the three of a kinds cards the 3 of a kind would win.> is this true or am i getting cheated online by a bug in the game play

Sean Lind Mar 31, 2009

J Lee, you're getting yourself a little confused. A straight always beats three of a kind, always. BUT if the board pairs when someone has three of a kind, then they have a full house and they beat the straight. For example:

board = 5 j Q K A
p1 = 10,3
p2 = 5,5

Player one wins here with a straight (10 - A)

board = j j Q K A
p1 = 10,3
p2 = Q,Q

In this hand Player two wins having a full house Q-Q-Q-J-J

You where mistaken in your first example when you thought that player two would have won. Online poker moves so quickly that these little mistakes can be easy to make.

Lance Apr 7, 2009

In this situation the player next to be the big blind is knocked out in the previous hand . What happens to the big blind or for that matter the person is the big blind and is to be the small blind in the next hand, but is knocked out in the hand he is the big blind

Sean Lind Apr 8, 2009

Hey lance, if the player NEXT to be the big blind busts it's simple, you just continue on as if that player was never at the table, the player to their left taking the big blind next.

If the player plays the big blind and busts, the rules change depending on if you're in a tournament or cash game:

Tournament:
The seat remains unfilled and for this hand there is no small blind. Button, nothing, big blind.
The next hand the button is "dead" meaning it sits in the empty seat where the player was, big and small blinds being as you'd expect.

Cash Game:
This is where it gets a little tricky. Every player in a cash game has to pay the small and big blind once an orbit. So, after the big blind busts it now goes:
Button
Nothing
Big blind
Big blind.

(yes, there are two big blinds).

When that hand plays out the button skips over the empty seat to the player who was the first big blind:

Button (with a small blind on top of the button)
Small blind
Big blind

After this everything is back to normal.

Will Apr 11, 2009

Hello , When playing poker when it comes down to the river for example player 1 makes a raise and player 2 calls and it turns out that player 1 wins and turns his cards over . Then player 2 says he cant beat player 1 hand but dont turn his cards over . Is player 1 untittled to see player 2 hand ???

thank you if can aswer

Sean Lind Apr 14, 2009

Will:

The rule here is that player 1 can request to see player 2's hand, since it is a "called hand".

BUT

It is considered extremely poor etiquette to do so. I highly recommend you never request to see another player's hand, as it's really bad form.

Marcos Apr 15, 2009

3 players on the table - "A" is small, "B" is big blind and "C" is the button. B lefts the game. In the next round (heads-up), "C" becomes the big and "A" the small & button.
Question: "A" player post the small bet again?

Anthony Apr 20, 2009

I was just wondering if you show your hand to one player do you have to show all? (show one show all) I heard its more of a house rule but whats the official rule on that?

Anthony Apr 20, 2009

Marcos:

This isnt a question i read Marcos post and the answer is no. Player A has the button and player C is big alone.

Sean Lind Apr 25, 2009

Hey Marcos, this is kind of a tricky situation because the blinds are "reversed" once you get into heads up.

Assuming player B left before this hand was dealt, Player C remains the button. Since Player C has the button Player C needs to post the Small blind, while Player A is the big blind.

The button is deemed more valuable than the blinds, thus it would give Player A more of an advantage to give him the button than to allow Player C to "skip" one Big Blind.

Sean Lind Apr 25, 2009

Anthony, Show one show all is almost 100% universal now. I have never sat in a poker room that doesn't enforce this rule. Even most private games I've played at use it.

There really is no official set of rules regarding etiquette, since all poker rooms have their own slight interpretations. But show one show all is universal enough to be assumed as a firm rule.

Albert May 3, 2009

I have 3 players in on the flop...player a is all in, player b & c still have chips...on the turn, player b bets (separate pot for player b & c) and player c folds. Does player c still have action on the first pot that player a was all in on or by folding does he forfeit the entire round?

Frank May 4, 2009

Hi Sean,

The following situation creates a lot of confusion in our home game:

player 1 bets 100
player 2 raises all in for 10,000
player 3 calls with 8,000
player 1 has a stack of 20,000

First of all: is there a rule that says that you cannot raise a player when he has raised or called all in?

If so, does it conflict here with the rule that you can go all in at any time? In the situation described above player 1 should not be able to raise player 2 anymore, because player 3 is already all in.

Yet he could shove all in with his 20k aiming for the 10k of player 2.

Frank May 4, 2009

Sorry,

One correction in the situation:

player 2 raises to 10,000, he has 10,000 left in his stack
player 3 calls for 8,000 (for all of his chips)

So to sum up:

player 1 bets 100
player 2 raises to 10k
player 3 calls for 8k (all in)
player 1 has a stack of 20k

Can player 1 only call for 8k or raise to 20k?

adam May 4, 2009

p1 8-10 the flop is 8-10-9-9-6
p2 K-K
who wins?

Frank May 5, 2009

Player 2 wins.

Player 1 has two pairs: 10-10-9-9-8
Player 2 has two pairs: K-K-9-9-10

Both players have two pairs but player 2 has the higher one.

Sean Lind May 5, 2009

Albert,

Once a player folds, they are out of the hand completely. You can't fold out of just a side pot.

Sean Lind May 5, 2009

Hey Frank.

All in's have no affect on whether or not you're allowed to raise.

Player one bets $100
Player two raises to $10k. This re-opens the betting round for player one, meaning he now has option again.

Player three goes all in.

Player one still has option, regardless of what player three decided to do.

Player one can fold, call (has to call the $10k making a $4k side pot for player's one and two), or re-raise. A minimum re-raise would be to $19,900 (so he might as well go all-in if he wants to raise).

Hope that helps.

Sean Lind May 5, 2009

Hey Adam, Frank answered your question nicely.

This scenario is known as being counterfeit. Player one's two pair is counterfeit by the higher pair on the board.

Mischa May 8, 2009

Following situation:

Heads up, Player 1 raises, Player 2 calls,
Flop is dealt (what doesn´t matter),
Player 1 bets, Player 2 calls,
Turn is dealt, Player 1 bets, Player 2 calls,
River is dealt,
again Player 1 bets and 2 calls.
As the dealer announces showdown, Player one mucks his cards. Player 2 says that he plays the board.

Does Player 2 has to show his hand to claim the Pot or is it enough to play the board?

Sean Lind May 8, 2009

Mischa,
The rule in almost all cardrooms, is that you need to show two cards to win a pot at showdown.

When one player mucks, only the other player can win the pot, but you still are required to show the hand in most all rooms.

It's kind of a moot point, since whatever he shows will be the winner.

Tosh May 17, 2009

hi,

My question is, if i am chip leader and i want to go all-in against the short stack, can i ask him for a chip count before i go all-in? There is no dealer, therefore does the short stack have to answer or is he entitled not to give me a chip count or does some other player act as a dealer and count his chips for me?

thnx.

renan May 17, 2009

the scenario is like this

P1 have a 7 and 9

P2 have 4 and 8

the table shows

4,8,7,K&K

who wins?
thanks!

Sean Lind May 19, 2009

Hey Tosh, this is sort of an interesting scenario:

Firstly, when there is a professional dealer at the table, a player has the right to choose not to answer the question "How much do you have left".

Now, they MUST clearly show their stack, and all high valued chips must be clearly displayed in FRONT of the rest of their chips.

Also, with a professional dealer, if the player really wants a count, it's the dealer's job to make that count (if the Short stacked player refuses to answer).

That being said, it's considered polite to answer this question when it's asked of you. It's not a breach of etiquette to not reply, but since the player will get the information either way, why not save everyone the time and answer.

Finally, if you have no dealer at the table, then it is up to another player at the table to count the chips (typically the player acting as the dealer for that hand, unless that's either of the players in the scenario).

This can cause friction with "I don't want you touching my chips", but it is your right to get a count, so the short stack can either answer, or they have to let someone else cut their stack down and count.

Sean Lind May 19, 2009

Renan,

Player 2 wins in that scenario.

P1's best 5 card hand: KK779
P2's best 5 card hand: KK887

Since the top pair is the same between both players (They both have KK), you use the second pair to evaluate the winner. Since P2 has 88, better over P1's 77, P2 wins.

Joe Cloutier May 22, 2009

If two players in 'heads up play' both make a flush in diamonds, and the highest card of the flush is on the board, do both players split the pot, or do you look to each player's second highest valued card within their flush to decide the winner?

Sean Lind May 22, 2009

Joe, you have to evaluate all five cards of the flush. If both players share the Ace and King of diamonds, but one player has the Queen in their hand, while the other only has the jack, the Queen wins the entire pot.

Vince May 22, 2009

Here's an interesting situation that happened in a recent friendly poker game.

3 players we're in the hand, river had just been turned. One player bet a BIG amount, the person next to him was counting his chips as the river turned. Accidentaly, the next dealer picked up all the cards thinking the hand was over(there was a lot of chit chat going on).

The player who bet big had a straight on the turn. The player who was counting his chips never saw the river(and didnt have anything). The third player was waiting his turn.

Although 2 out of 3 of the players(as well as the dealer who was no longer involved in the hand) agreed on what the river card was(and the rest of the community cards), the player who didnt see the river insisted it be a misdeal and that everyone take their chips back. Thats what ended up happening. My take on this is that he should of just took the other players word for what the river was and gone to showdown if he wanted to call.

What should of happened in your opinion?
Thanks in advance.

Sean Lind May 23, 2009

Hey Vince, this has two possible resolutions, neither of which are giving players their chips back. That is almost never the correct thing to do... there has to be a gross flaw in the integrity of the game, such as there being two King of hearts on the board.

In your situation, the player "should" have taken the other players word on what the river was (in a card room the dealer would call the pit over, and if he could say with confidence what the river was, it would most likely stand).

If he didn't want to accept their word for what the card was (totally ok to do), the proper solution is to put the first four cards back out (including burn cards if possible), then reshuffle the remaining deck, bringing a new river.

Actually, if the new dealer picked up mucked hands, and mixed them into the stub, there is no way to make a "fair" river. In this case the chips would have to go back to the players if both players can't agree on the river card.

Darshwood May 25, 2009

are there any official rules of play that involve stacking your chips in colored order or can someone actually let a big pile of unorganized chips sit in front of them throughout the game?

babyhuewie May 25, 2009

player 1 has J 3
player 2 has j 2the cards are
j 4 6 8 9
who wins or do we split it

eric May 26, 2009

afther the river player one checks player 2 raises and player 3 calls then p1 folds can p2 folds also without showing their cards to p3

is p2 allow to fold without a showdown when he was the one who raised and was pay to show ????

Sean Lind May 26, 2009

Darshwood, the rules state that you're not allowed to hide the total number of chips you have. This means you need to have your chips in stacks, and high-value chips must be in front of the rest (or on top).

It's up to you how many chips are in a stack, and you're allowed to mix up colors if you please.

Basically you just can't hide chips, or play from a pile.

Sean Lind May 26, 2009

Babyhuewie,
You have to make the best five card hand. Since neither of your kickers beats anything on board, the best 5 card hand you can both make is:

J J 9 8 6

It's a split pot.

Sean Lind May 26, 2009

Eric,

Ok, if player 2 wants to contest this pot, and thinks he has a chance at winning, technically it's on him to show is hand first.

But, if he was making a stone cold bluff, and gets called. He's more than able to simply throw his hand away and concede the pot to player 3.

Technically player 3 can request to see player 2's hand, but it's considered a serious breach of etiquette to do so.

jole May 27, 2009

hi,can some1 solve me this one...

on the table:
k 5 10 2 2

p1 has k 10
p2 has A 4
who wins?????

THANKS!!

jole May 27, 2009

missprint

p2 has A A
so table shows
K 5 10 2 2
p1 has 10 K
p2 has A A
who wins the pot?thnx

Sean Lind May 28, 2009

Jole, in a 2 pair versus 2 pair, you always compare the high pair to the high pair, then if those are the same, the second pair to the second pair.

P1 - K K 10 10 5
P2- A A 2 2 K

Since AA is higher than KK, that's all we need to know. Player 2 wins.

Matthew Ackley May 28, 2009

Two players All In preflop AcKh vs As10c
flop comes K62 turn 5 river 9 AK thinks he wins dealers scoops cards and another player at the table says A10 had a flush...As the tournament director I come over and 3 people say no flush 2 people say flush. The muck pile was off by 2 cards only 13 should have had 15 because 6 players in hand folded and 3 burns...I decided to shuffle all cards except AK A10 and deal new board is this correct the A10 guy said it should be a dead hand and chop. But since the action was allin preflop i figured it couldnt be a chop

Howza May 28, 2009

If I'm last to act and go all in. Then everyone folds apart from one player, can i only double up or do I have a claim to the blinds and any bets already placed before the players folded??

Sean Lind May 29, 2009

Hey Matthew,

These situations are the ones with no cut and dry solution. No matter what, it's messy.

Once the cards had all been mucked, it's impossible to rebuild the hand accurately without being able to go to the cameras, since most places don't have cameras at every table, and you can't really shut down a tourney to review one pot, this is rarely an option.

If the dealer has no idea if A10 had a flush or not, and there is no way to accurately re-construct the board, I agree that (in a tournament) the two hands should be fished out, the cards shuffled, and the board run again.

I'd just explain before hand what the scenario is, and what was going to happen. Run the board and ship the chips.

no matter what you do, someone is going to be upset here.

I guess chopping the pot isn't a bad option either, but I don't like it.

Sean Lind May 29, 2009

Howza,

All blinds and folded money become part of the main pot, meaning you get to win that as well.

But, this is assuming your all in was worth more than these bets.

For example:
blinds 100-200
two players limp
you move all in for $1000
One player calls, everyone else folds.

Everything in that pot you can win, the whole $2700.

in this scenario:

blinds 500-1000

One player limps

you go all in for $500

Another player moves all in, everyone else folds.

You can only win $500 from every bet out there

Small blind, big blind, the limp, and the player who went all in.

$2500 pot including your own money. Everything else goes to the player who went all in against you.

Howza May 29, 2009

Thank you Sean

Alan May 29, 2009

Hi Sean,
great info for poker newbies, thanks! :-)

JOE CATALANO Jun 3, 2009

if u have a stack of chips in your hand and go to raise , and release those that chip indervidually without calling the raise. is that a string bet ? Also if u announce a raise3 but not the amount and release your chips that way is that a string bet ?

Sean Lind Jun 4, 2009

Joe, this topic is not universally agreed apon. Some people claim that any chips that cross the line, must stay across the line.

Most poker rooms in the state of Washington work this way. So once your handfull of chips are across the line, it doesn't matter how you let them go, because all of them are "bet" anyways.

In the regular world, what you're describing is fine. A string bet is called when a player puts chips across the line, then returns back to their stack making their betting two unique motions.

What you describe is one continuous, yet drawn out, motion. It's not technically a string bet... but it is a little douschey to do.

SpeedyBD Jun 7, 2009

Sean,

Great service. Thanks!

You have hit on this question here and there but I would like to get clarification with a few questions.

Is the last person to make a bet/raise the first person that must reveal their cards in a showdown?

If so, is it then clockwise from the last bettor for anyone else who wishes to contend the pot? I realize that typically this is not an issue, but on many occasions those calling wish to see the bettor's hand and if those calling have lost, they want the option to muck.

As described in an earlier Q&A, if out of three players and after the river the bettor and one of the two callers both muck their hands, why should the last caller being now the only one holding a live hand, reveal their cards after the showdown?

Thanks!

SpeedyBD Jun 7, 2009

Two questions/scenarios, same State...

State:

Post Flop (betting on flop) Player 3 has dealer button

Blinds 1K and 2K

Player 1 - 8K in chips
Player 2 - 10K in chips
Player 3 - 800 in chips

Betting:

P1 - Checks
P2 - Checks
P3 - All in with 800 chips (not meeting minimum big blind bet)

Q1 - As P1 and P2 checked prior to P3's all in less than minimum bet, may P1 call the 800, then P2 call the 800 and then begin on 4th street with a potential side pot? Or must P1 and P2 meet the big blind minimum bet creating a 2400K side pot?


Q2 - Less than 50% rule on raises?... Same setup with P2 wanting to raise...

Betting:

P1 Checks
P2 - Checks
P3 - All in with 800 Chips (less than 50% of minimum big blind)

P1 Calls 800
P2 - Now wants to go all in against P1 with the 10K.

Because P3 who was last to act brings action to the table with such a minimal all in bet after P1 and P2 checks, and then P1 calls P3's small all in (or meets the BB depending on your answer to Q1), is not the information gained by P2 about P1 unfair due to a low bet commitment by P3's short stack all in? Isn't there a rule that if there are checks all around to an all in bet less than 50% of the minimum bet requires only the option of a call or fold and does not allow for a raise?

Thanks!

Sean Lind Jun 9, 2009

Hey Speedy,

let's work on your first question first:

On the river, the last person to bet or raise is the first person required to open their hand on showdown (regardless of the number of callers).

After that first person opens, each player must open in sequence Clockwise around the table.

The only exception here is if someone shows out of turn, anyone can muck their hand at any time.

In a situation where everyone mucks their hands on showdown leaving only one player with live cards, technically that player wins the pot without having to show. But, most poker rooms have a rule that "You need to show to cards to win at showdown". They don't make an exception to this rule in this situation, forcing you to show both your cards.

Sean Lind Jun 9, 2009

Speedy,

Ok, your second post.

Q1: If a player has enough chips to do so, all of their actions must be in complete bets. Player's 1 and two must call $2000, leaving a $2400 side pot.

Q2: In this situation, players 1 and 2 can only call.

The first thing to clear up is the 50% rule. There is no such thing in No-Limit. the 50% rule is a limit rule only, anyone using it in a No-Limit game is incorrect.

Once a player checks or calls, they are no longer allowed to raise any bet less than that of a complete bet.

If you took the same example, but you switched the stacks of player 2 and player 3, when player 2 goes all in, player 3 can raise any amount he wants.

If player 3 just calls, player 1 can only call, they checked before the only bet, and even though they must call $2000 (and the original bet was only $800) they are still not allowed to raise.

Speedybd Jun 9, 2009

Sean,

Awesome, exactly what I needed. Interesting to know about the 50% rule only being in Limit play, but it makes sense. It makes the no-limit scenario much more cut and dry.

Thanks Again!!!

Sean Lind Jun 10, 2009

You're welcome Speedy. Any more questions you come up with, just post them in the comments.

-S

christhecat Jun 14, 2009

player1 goes all in after the river
player 2 umms and ahhs for 5 minutes then turns his cards over not declaring any bet or fold or placing any chips.
player 1 throws his cards onto table revealing all in bluff and thinks he has won as player 2 has not bet therefore folding.? a fight ensues mayhem follows.any help on who was right please sean

Sean Lind Jun 16, 2009

Hey ChrisKitty,

This depends on the house rule for exposing cards. In most poker rooms these days, turning over your hand kills your hand, forfeiting the pot. If that's the rule here, Player 1 should win the pot, no content.

In the world of real poker, where every player is allowed to do what they like with their own two cards, you can show your cards heads-up whenever you like. If this is the rule in the house, showing his cards has not committed him to any action. He can then make the call once he sees the bluff turned over and take the pot.

christhecat Jun 21, 2009

thanks for the clarification sean

meeoww;)

Andrew Jun 24, 2009

Really sorry if my question has been asked, there are just so many I couldn't read them all =].

Scenario.

Player 1 has : 10, 2

Player 2 has : 8, 6

the table looks like : 10, J, Q, K, A

The highest hand is on the table, the straight, there is not a flush draw.

Now my question is does player one take the pot because he has a straight with his hand (the 10), or do both players split?

Thanks a ton, this has come up multiple times in games and me and friends are never sure how to work it out (we mostly just split).

Sean Lind Jun 24, 2009

Andrew,

In your question both players split the pot. In Hold'em, you make the best five card hand using any of the 7 cards available to you. That's the only rule for making your hand.

In your scenario both players use the board cards (known as "playing the board"), since that's the best possible 5-card hand, it doesn't matter what the players hold in the hole.

steve Jun 24, 2009

In tournament play what happens when the person who is to be the big blind next hand goes out?

h3lp n3w pok3rplay3r Jun 25, 2009

player one: Jack spade and 8 of club
player two : Ace space a10 hearts
TABLE 8- 8- 6- Q- 10
ALL SPADES AND ONE 8 OF DIAMOND

WHO WINS????

Sean Lind Jun 25, 2009

Steve,

One of two things happen:

A) they move someone from another table into that seat

or more commonly, they just skip the seat, and the player who was supposed to be under the gun is the big blind that hand, small blind where it should be.

Sean Lind Jun 25, 2009

Hey help,

Player two wins with the nut flush, he has the ace high flush, while player one has a jack high flush.

Sean Lind Jul 11, 2009

Eric,

In this situation nothing happens really. The button still has option to act, and now he gets to do it having seen Player 1's cards.

Obviously this is not a good thing, but it was an honest mistake. Play goes on as normal.

Eric Jul 11, 2009

Odd situation, a player revealing his hole cards before he should have.

I am short stack (75$) and small blind with 10 players at a 150$ buy in Texas holdem game. Blinds are 10-20.

Cards are dealt. Position 1 calls (stack of 200$), the button calls (stack of 300$), I push all in.

BB folds. Player 1 waits for a minute; he makes the call and reveals his cards right away as if he was heads up with me. But the player on the button is still in the hand and has not pronounced himself yet...?

What appends?

Thepointis Jul 11, 2009

5 players are left in round. The board shows Q high straight. No player had a K to make a better straight. One player had a pair of 8's in hand. Does the pot get split between all players as the straight is the best hand from the seven cards or does the player with three 8's take the lot.
Thanks
Steven

Eric Jul 12, 2009

TY Sean,

Just a clarrification then.

If the button re-raises for a side pot, is player 1 automaticly folded since his cards are revealed? Can a side pot be played until the river w the cards of player 1 revealed?

Éric

Sean Lind Jul 14, 2009

Thepontis:

You can only play the best possible 5-card hand. So all players split the pot.

Sean Lind Jul 14, 2009

Eric,

When the dealer (or floorman) rules that the shown cards were shown by mistake (thinking all betting was over), the hand is still live.

If the button re-raises, player 1 will have the option to play their hand face up.

The rule that says "Exposing your cards will result in a dead hand" is in place to stop angling at the tables. It would be very rare, and incorrect, to enforce this rule on a player making a mistake.

Matt Jul 15, 2009

1 player is all in and 1 player has called the all in. Flop is normal turn is normal, but when the river is to be dealt there is a problem.

The cut card had been shuffled into the deck and it comes in place of the river card..

Misdeal or treat as boxed card?

Will Jul 18, 2009

hi Sean
I have a question, is there a rule player have to show both cards at the end of play?

player 1 is all-in on the flop and player 2 and player 3 are still betting, then player 2 fold on the river, so the player 3 win the side pot, then player 3 show one card and muck the other hold card. dose that mean player 3 hand is a dead hand because he muck one of the hold card? or is the hand still live? if it is a dead hand dose player 1 win the hand with out having to show his hand?

Sean Lind Jul 18, 2009

Hey Will,

In every poker room I've ever played in you must show both your cards to win a hand (since a legal winning hand must have exactly two cards).

If your one card is good enough to win, and you muck the second, you might have your hand ruled dead and lose the pot. This will just depend on the floorman (or even their mood at the time).

Always show both cards to win a pot.

Kevin Jul 23, 2009

I've been playing holdem online and I am noticing that there are 1-3 'pots' at any given time. The main pot; the main + 1 side pot; or the main + 2 side pots. What makes the 'side pots' and how are the side pots won? I know there are a lot variables on how the side pots are won. So, if there is a general answer to that I'll figure it out by apply it to different situations.

Sean Lind Jul 23, 2009

Kevin,

You can only win the amount from every player equal to what you have in your stack.

If three players go all in:

Player 1 - $100
Player 2 - $200
Player 3 - $300

Player one is only eligible for winning the main pot, worth $300. To win the main pot, his hand has to be better than every other hand at showdown.

Player 2 still has $100 left that player 1 couldn't win in the main pot, so this makes a side pot. The best hand between Player 2 and Player 3 will win the side pot, worth a total of $200.

Player 3's final $100 stays in his stack, it's not part of the hand.

jeff s Jul 30, 2009

A K 9 6 3 Are showing. I have two 9s and fold, the other player shows me a 6 that i would have beat. If i ask does he have to show me his other card so I no if he had me beat or just wants me to think he bet a weak hand?

Sean Lind Jul 30, 2009

Jeff,

If you make it to the showdown, technically you can request to see his other card, but it's a serious breach of etiquette to do so.

If you didn't make it to the showdown (which it sounds like you didn't), you have no authority to see anything more than he's willing to show.

ACA Aug 1, 2009

hi i need help me and my friends are heaveing problem to decide who heave beather hand

1p-4,7
2p-3,6

table 9,.J,k,9,A

who wins cuz all cards on table are bigger

Sean Lind Aug 1, 2009

Aca,

In hold'em you don't need to use any specific number of your hole cards. Since the best 5 cards are on the board for both of you, you both have the same hand:it's a split pot.

norm Aug 20, 2009

we were playing texas hold'em, I went all in and the other player called me, and on the turn, Am i required to show my cards then or wait for the river. They say you are required to show your cards when called , Ithought it was an option..

Sean Lind Aug 20, 2009

Norm,

This depends. In a tournament you're required to show your cards immediately, that's pretty much a universal rule.

In a cash game, unless there is a specific house rule that states otherwise, it's your choice if or when to show your hand.

Dominique Aug 22, 2009

If a player throws away his hand at some point during play (usually well before showdown) & then comments "Oh, I would've made a straight/full house/etc", that is illegal, right? I always thought it was wrong, mainly because people get so mad about it, but I wanted to find a basis for my reasoning. I also thought so because it seems that when one card is misdealt or accidentally shown it's fine but generally 2 cards is a redeal. Thank you!

Sean Lind Aug 22, 2009

Dominique,

You are never allowed to talk about the hand in play, doesn't matter if you folded, or if you still hold your hand. You can't talk about the hand, no exceptions.

As for misdeals, unless it's the first or second card dealt, just one card exposed is not a misdeal. Two cards exposed is always a misdeal, just like the first or second card exposed.

Johnny Aug 23, 2009

HI Sean. This just happened a minutes ago.

To resume.

Heads up. Player 2 goes all in after the river. I called.

He shows his hand and I mistakenly though he beat me and I throw my cards, without showing.

Another person on the table says that I win and turn the cards up.

I had flush and P2 only a straight. Did I fold my hand by throwing the cards or can they be turned up by other person and claim the pot?

I know it depends of the room, but does the dealer has the obligation to show both hands, even when player 1 (me) called the bet and then throw the cards?
Thanks

Sean Lind Aug 24, 2009

Johnny,

Once you throw your cards face down (without showing), your hand is dead.

If you show the hand to dealer, they can then open your hand for you if you're the winner. But a mucked hand is dead.

You should have lost the pot, and you should learn a valuable lesson: Always show your hand, you will never win by mucking.

paul Aug 26, 2009

hi sean, 2 players in the hand, player A bets big on the river,player B is thinking his move, when he looks at player A then shows him his cards ,as to gauge a reaction.is this legal are the cards dead, or can he continue in the hand ?

Johnny Aug 26, 2009

Thank you very much Sean. Learned lesson ;)

steve Aug 26, 2009

in a situation where 1-6 places.... 4 people left...3 people go all in .... out of the 3 of them the big stack wins taking the other 2 players out.... however the other to players have the exact same hand.... who gets 4th and who gets 3rd in this situation ?

Sean Lind Aug 27, 2009

Paul,

This depends on the rule of the room you're playing in. The way it should be, is as long as you're heads up you are allowed to do that. Remember, we're playing poker. Your goal is to lie and steal as much money as possible, no need to be honorable here.

Many poker rooms rule that showing your hand is not allowed, and it's supposed to be a dead hand in those rooms. But unless you've been warned about it earlier, you will never get your hand killed, just a floorman telling you you're not allowed to do that.

Sean Lind Aug 27, 2009

Steve,

Because the big stack took them both out, it doesn't matter what hands the other two players have. The way it works in most tourneys is the player who had the most chips of the two at the start of the hand, gets third.

In some tourneys, when two players bust in the same hand, both players tie for third place, splitting the combined prize of 3rd and 4th.

Cy Aug 27, 2009

In a three player game:
player 1 = button
player 2 = small blind
player 3 = big blind
When the button gets busted out.
Who gets to be the dealer next time?
Who gets to be small and big blind?

-cy

Sean Lind Aug 28, 2009

Cy,

This situation is a little tricky. The goal is to put the players at as little of a disadvantage as you can.

The button moves to player 2, as it should. Since it would be brutally unfair to make player three pay the big blind twice in a row we're going to put the big blind on the button for just this one hand.

After the hand plays out, we leave the button on player two, who then places the small blind on the button.

After that the hands play out as they would.

With this solution there is only one hand which is abnormal. Player 2 gets a slight advantage of having the button twice in a row, but that's better than the disadvantage of having to pay the big blind twice in a row if we did it any other way.

Jo Sep 4, 2009

There are 3 players in the hand.

Player1 bets.
Player2 -it is his turn to bet, but Player3 folds his cards out of turn before Player2 acts.
Player1 sees Player3 fold and thinks the hand is over, he turns his cards up and one of his cards hits the muck pile.

Is Player1's cards dead because one hit the muck pile and Player2 takes the pot?
Or does Player2 have the option of betting, knowing what Player1's card are?

Sean Lind Sep 4, 2009

Jo,

The second one. Because Player 1's hand hit the muck face up, the hand can be ruled live, since it's obvious which two cards belong to him.

Player 2 has to complete his option, he can call , raise or fold.

fariba Sep 4, 2009

Hi , what is position mean in a poker game ? and how important is it ? Thank you .

Sean Lind Sep 7, 2009

Fariba,

Position means you're acting last in the hand post flop. If you have the button, you have the best position.

Position is probably the most important thing next to your cards in poker.

Chan Sep 8, 2009

Suppose we have 3 players in a hand

on the flop:
p1 goes all in w/ $100
p2 calls
p3 raises to $300
p2 calls

on the turn:
p2 checks
p3 raises $100
p2 folds
Is p2 still elegible to participate in the 1st sidepot w/ p1 and p3 even folding on the turn? If so how does that happen - he/she keeps the cards w/o really folding them? Tks.

Kay Sep 8, 2009

I'm a little confused with split pot situations. under what conditions would you split the pot? I know that the best 5 card hand is the winner, but what would merit a split pot?

Sean Lind Sep 9, 2009

Kay,

There are split pots and there are side pots.

If you're playing a High-Low game, the low hand wins half the pot. This is a split pot game.

In a regular game, such as Texas Hold'em, if Player A goes all in for $100 Players B and C both call with more money behind, any money they bet on future streets is part of the side pot. Player A can only ever win the amount he put in from the other players.

Colin Sep 29, 2009

I played a game recently where I was in a showdown with one last player (everyone else had folded out after the flop) after the turn we did our betting as usual, and then after the river came down. For some reason he showed his cards, he had a two pair, i had trip 5's. what should happen in this situation?

Colin Sep 29, 2009

NO WAY! thanks sean for the quick response. i can't believe that. So even though i knew he had 8 and a 4 in his hand because he showed them way out of turn even before the last round of better. I still could have placed my bet for the last round, and then we play it out like normal?
Ive read some things where if a player acts out of turn he has to muck his cards, but since showing your cards isn't actually an action we should've just played the hand like normal?
All my friends made me split the pot between everyone so they all go their money back and that turned out to be the downfall of my chip stack considering i was teetering on the edge of "broke" at that point anyway

Sean Lind Sep 29, 2009

Colin,

What should happen? You should instantly move all in and hope he thinks you're trying to bluff him. He calls and you drag in a huge pot.

When it's heads up there is no harm in showing your cards. Some rooms have a rule against it, but I get mad when they enforce that rule even if they have it.

Angling/showing your cards (when there's only 2 players left) is part of the game.

Sean Lind Sep 30, 2009

Your friends made you chop the pot back to everyone... that doesn't even make sense.

I can only think of one scenario I've ever seen where that has been the legitimate solution, and it involved there being two Ace of Hearts in play at the same time.

If you're playing in a game where showing your cards is against the rules, what should have happened is your opponents hand is dead, and you get the whole pot.

Either they do that, or they go with the "real poker" rules, and your opponents hand stays live. Nothing else changes, you get to make any action you like on your turn, and he can choose to call, raise or fold.

Brandon Oct 1, 2009

I already know the answers, but need this to post to a player @ my home game.

#1 The $ gets all in preflop, one player has AQos the 44. After the flop, 4th st & 5th st, the board reads:

87766

Obviously the AQos has won this hand, he misreads the board & mucks. His hand is dead & he loses the pot, does he not? He gets upset because he feels it was up to everyone else at the table to tell him his hand.

Marc Tanner Oct 17, 2009

If a tournament has 1st, 2nd & 3rd place, and the last three players are ALL IN, and one player remains, is there still a 1st, 2nd, & 3rd place or does the remaining player win it all?

pilie Oct 18, 2009

Final table of a NLHE tournament - 5 players left.
Three players go all in pre-flop. The big stack shows top pair. The small stack has second pair, the middle stack - high card. Who is fifth - the small or the middle stack?

Sean, a second question. Where can one read the "official" rules of poker? I think I have at least two of them somewhere on my old discs:-)

Sean Lind Oct 19, 2009

Brandon,

This depends on a few options actually:
Firstly, did the player with AQ show the dealer his hand first, before mucking.

Even at a self-dealt home game, the dealer runs the hand.

If the player mucks his hand without showing, the pot is lost, no questions. If the player shows his hand to the dealer, he will win the pot.

The rule here is "Cards speak". It doesn't matter what you say or do, if you show your hand to the dealer, that's all that counts.

Since you say that he thought the table should have spoken up, it sounds like he did show his hand, so he should have won the pot.

Sean Lind Oct 19, 2009

Marc,

When multiple players bust in the same hand there are two ways the money is paid out. The most common way:

If the player who won the hand had the most chips to start with, they win 1st place, with the 1st place prize.

The remaining players win the prizes in order of how many chips they had at the start of the hand. The player who started the hand second in chips will take second place, and so on.

The other way is for 2nd and 3rd to combine the prizes of the two finishes and split the prize down the middle.

Sean Lind Oct 19, 2009

Pilie,

Read my answer to Marc above, that will have the answer to your first question.

Your second question... unfortunately there is no 100% "official" rule book for poker. The rules found on our site here under the rules tab are the most commonly used rules around.

Our rules are in line with the WSOP, and as far as we're concerned, the WSOP is the #1poker tournament, started by the guys who invented Hold'em, thus their rules should be official.

Michael Vejs Oct 27, 2009

Hi Sean, first of ty for answering all these Q's, has been helpfull..

I play Texas hold'em on Facebook using Zynga's poker application. I dont know if its a error in their app., but please help here:

Scene: flop, turn & river= 2-2-4-4-8aka 2 pairs w/8 high.

pl1 has 3-10
pl2 has 3-6

**
Same scene:

pl1 has 3-10
pl2 has 3-11

Who wins? It's so frustrating, cause sometimes pl1 wins, pl2 wins and last they split the pot.

Any idea?

Sean Lind Oct 27, 2009

Michael,

The rule is this: You need to make the best 5-card hand you can.

Player 1 has: 4-4-2-2-10
Player 2 has: 4-4-2-2-8

Since 10 > 8 Player 1 wins with the higher kicker.

Michael Vejs Oct 27, 2009

yeah but sometimes thats not the case.. eventhough pl1&pl2's kicker is higher than the river or in some cases on both sides of the river the outcome can be different.

I totally understand your point but that isn't the case with Zynga's poker.

another scene could be:

pl1 has 2-2-3-5-8+Q-J
pl2 has 2-2-3-4-7+K-T

here we have 1 pair w/ Q n' K as kicker. sometimes its pl1 that wins other times its pl2 that wins and sometimes its a split. I dont get it.

Sean Lind Oct 28, 2009

Michael,

The rule is actually pretty straight forward, and Zynga does it all correctly.

You must always make the best 5-card hand. If your kickers don't play, meaning you share the same hand (such as A-A-K-K-Q) it's a split pot.

If you have higher kicker, than you win the pot. Simple as that.

Michael Vejs Oct 28, 2009

Quote "If you have higher kicker, than you win the pot. Simple as that. "

thats what i would say too... but its not allways how it turns out.. in Zynga poker that is..

I can have a bigger kicker, pl2 can have a higher kicker.. either I win, he wins og we share.

thats why I dont understand. im going to play some poker now. when i see this again i'll make a prt scr for you. can I post images?

Sean Lind Oct 29, 2009

Michael,

If no kickers play, it's a split pot. If one player has a higher kicker, they win.

Next time you see a situation that you think is fishy, screen shot it and upload it to http://imageshack.us/

Just post the link it gives you here and I"ll take a look.

Michael Vejs Oct 30, 2009

here you go :)

http://img251.imageshack.us/img251/1051/zynga.jpg

As you can see we both have 3 of a kind (5's) his kicker is 6, mine is 7 but we split.

Sean Lind Oct 30, 2009

Michael,

You're forgetting the #1 rule of Hold'em Showdowns:

You have to make the best 5-card hand out of ANY combination of the board cards and your own.

Because their are two board cards higher than both of your kickers, you end up with the same hand:

You have: 56
He has : 57
The board: 5495A

Your best 5-card hand: 555A9
His best 5-card hand : 555A9

As you can see, you have the same hand.

If the river was a 2 instead of an ace, you would have lost:

Your hand would have been: 55596
His hand would have been : 55597

In that scenario, he would have won with his kicker.

Hopefully that clears it up for you.

Anthony Nov 2, 2009

If there are 4 aces on the board with a 9,and two players are holding a k .8 and the other a.8.
Who wins the hand?

Sean Lind Nov 3, 2009

Anthony,

You have 5 aces in your question.

Anyways, you have to make the best 5 card hand. If there are 4 aces on the board, the player with the highest hole card will win. If the 5th card on the board is higher than both your hole cards, it's a split pot.

Colin Nov 4, 2009

quick question that is doing my head in at are local league

After the flop on a $50,$100 blind level
player 1 bets $150
now player 2 pulls him up on the fact that he has bet $150 and they start mouthing off at each other as player 2 has said he should have bet double the big blind or only but in $100
now player 1 has said with him being the 1st to act after the flop his bet can be anything as long as it is more than the $100 big blind so his $150 should stand

Who is right

Also if the bottom card on the deack is drop onto the table and ends up face up what do you do you count it as the 1st burn card or is it picked up and put back into the deck and the deck reshuffled and a new burn card delt

Sarge Nov 5, 2009

Player in first position has straddled($5). Player in position 4 raises $25 putting $30 on the table. Dealer rakes in the $5 from these players. Player in first position calls re-raise and puts $35 out on the table and goes back and starts to count out more chips. Player in position 4 declares that since the player in position 1 placed the full raise out on the table along with a partial raise (and had not declared a raise amount) that he was committed to a minimum raise of another $25 and should be required to put the additional $15 on the table. Is this correct?

Sean Lind Nov 5, 2009

Colin,

Firstly, UTG was wrong. The minimum raise is always double the amount of the Big Blind. His option was to call $100 or Raise to any amount above $200.

As for the bottom card of the deck being exposed, that card will never have played on the hand. Just show it to all the players at the table, explaining that it was shown, then throw it into the muck.

This card would never have affected the hands or the board, so it makes no sense to shuffle it back into the deck.

Sean Lind Nov 5, 2009

Sarge,

This is absolutely correct. You are only allowed to bet, or raise in one single forward motion. You are never allowed to go back to your chips and grab more, unless you previously stated the raise amount.

But, in most places you can say "Raise" put out the amount of the call, and then in one motion bring out the full amount of your raise..

Since Player 4 had bet a total of $30, and Player 1 Put out $35, he is committed to making a min raise. The final raise amount would be $55.

Also, the dealer should never take rake until all betting is complete, plus most poker rooms only rake post-flop. Pre-flop action should be, and usually is, exempt from any rake.

Svekke Nov 5, 2009

I just had a very annoying situation.

On the flop, player A goes all-in. Player B folds and player C owns the second nuts.

Player C shows his cards to player A, to see his reaction. This is a tactic used by Doyle Brunson in his book "Super System".

He then decides to call. Player A complains that player C (who was the last to act) wasn't allowed to show his cards, unless he would fold.

My question is:

Is this kind of play allowed or not?

Sean Lind Nov 5, 2009

Svekke,

The answer here is: It depends.

Some card rooms have a rule stating that you are not allowed to show your cards.

In the real world, you can do anything you want when it's heads up. Especially since player A was all in. Player A has no more actions left, so really player C can do anything he wants, no harm no foul.

Even if the card room does have a "you can't show your cards rule", this still shouldn't matter, the player should get a warning, then be allowed to call.

Pearl Nov 7, 2009

If there three players left in the hand after the river, player A bets, player B calls, and player C folds can player A raise or is all betting complete.

Nate Nov 7, 2009

At a home game with two players in the hand after the river, 1st player goes all in. 2nd player exposes cards (turns cards face up on table), then decides to call the all in. Several other players thought his hand was dead when he exposed his hole cards without announcing a call first. Is a hand considered "folded" if it is exposed before announcing an action, even if there are only two players left in the hand and the first has gone all in?

This sounds similar to the question asked by Svekke on 11/5/09

Thanks, Nate